Sick days

Hi, I'm currently under contract for a Co-Op position for a large company. Unfortunately I have been sick on and off for the past two months. I came down with some sort of sinus infection, was off for one week (which unfortunately I didn't see a doctor for -- I was trying ColdMD and hoping it would go away). The second time was a few weeks later, I went to the doctor, got a doctor's note for the 3 and a bit days I was off, as well as a perscription for a strong antibiotic. And now just last week it came back yet again (the same damned sinus infection) for a third time, and I was off for another two. I went and saw the doctor, got two perscriptions more, but forgot to get a note (which I could easily go back and get if need be).

Thus far, I've been paid for all of my sick time, whether by accident or if they neglected to doc me, even though I filled out the appropriate forms at the time. We get paid bi-weekly for that week and the previous, so thus far I haven't been paid (or not paid for that matter) for these most recent two days off.

Now my manager has e-mailed HR, and they've said that contract employees are not entitiled to paid sick time. He called me into his office to tell me that they're probably going to dock me for all of the time missed (the 2 weeks + a bit).

Question is, can they do this? If they've paid me already for the previous 8.whatever days, and I did fill out the proper online forms promptly, can they now decide not to pay me for that time, and dock it off of this pay along with the two days from last week? This doesn't seem right, and I'll suffer financially as I won't have any money coming in at all for this pay if that's the case.

Please help! Please respond to Cory . Svensson @ gmail . com (spaces removed please)

--Cory

Oh, by the way, I'm in Ontario, Canada. And a reply can be posted here, I've bookmarked the page and will check back.

--Cory

Ok, so I managed to dig up the law which I believe relates to this, however maybe someone's advice on interpretation?

III. Payment of Wages: Your Guide to the Employment Standards Act | Ministry of Labour

It seems they would need written consent from me in order to deduct from my pay, and even verbal (if that's what you would call my boss telling me) isn't enough according to this act.

Am I correct in assuming unless they come down asking me to sign something, they can't take away from my pay?

--Cory

[judg4]

Normally that is correct; they cannot dock your pay. They have to work out some other agreement with you.