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#1 |
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Junior Member
Last Online:
Aug 26th, 2008 03:08 AM Join Date: Aug 2008
Posts: 2
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Quick question, im sure its ok but summing it up: Man gets sued for $130K, court said no title tranfers or anything during, in case he doesn't pay, they'll take his assets (car, home, business, etc etc) he put his truck in his wifes name and his motorcycle in the sons name, sons name is similar to his, so he brought the bike during the lawsuit, after he lost, he bought it then took the son there to say it was his, they made a mistake, and they filled out the form saying the dmv made an error, this was like 1-2 weeks after purchase, ok fine everything good, pink slip is in the sons name, no title transfer to the son, Man said it was dmv's fault on the name, and they went through with it, etc etc....since the court said no title transfer or anything to the Man ONLY, does that mean if they have to sieze the bike or truck, the son or wife WILL NOT get in trouble at all? Since they didnt know, could be a gift?
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#2 |
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Posts: n/a
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Not sure we really follow this?
But court orders need to be strictly followed. If for some reason an accident or difficulty or mistake occurs then inform the court asap and show the intent to comply. |
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