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Old 04-27-2008, 07:20 PM     #1
Nam
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Question Questions from a Freeman-on-the-land

Do statutes require consent to have the force of law upon a living man?

If a judge has found a law/statute to be invalid, unconstitutional, and has
no force or effect, are police and/or law enforcement officers obligated to
obey the judges findings?
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Old 04-29-2008, 11:55 AM     #2
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Default Re: Questions from a Freeman-on-the-land

You do not have to consent.

And yes if a court finds they are unconstitutional, then the police and prosecutors must obey that.
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Old 04-29-2008, 05:26 PM     #3
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Default Re: Questions from a Freeman-on-the-land

Quote:
Originally Posted by annjd View Post

You do not have to consent.
I find this answer a little vague. I know that I do not have to consent to anything that I do not want to, But I do not consent to something, how can someone else force it upon me? Is that not slavery? Governments claim they get the power to govern, by the consent of those who they are governing. Well, if someone does not consent, how can a government force it's governance upon them? After all, isn't government supposed to be a representative one.


Quote:
Originally Posted by annjd View Post

And yes if a court finds they are unconstitutional, then the police and prosecutors must obey that.
Thanks, I talked to a police officer who claims he does not care, and will arrest anyone for anything he feels is against the law, no matter what the courts say. What do you feel would be the best way to remedy that situation to avoid conflict?

Last edited by Nam : 05-22-2008 at 06:15 AM.
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