Verbally abusive messages

[JohnF]

My sister is 83 years old. Our grand niece called her cell phone three times, leaving progressively verbally abusive messages. My sister reported this to the police.

The police ordered the niece to appear before a magistrate, at which meeting my sister was also in attendance. The niece informed the magistrate that she learned from the Internet that a message left on a cell phone was private and intended only for the owner of the cell phone.

The magistrate accepted this as law. Is this, in fact, law?

That is generally true but why are you asking--did that cause any problem here?

The owner of the phone was the one that rec'd the message right?

Or do you mean the niece called her own phone?

What is actually your issue/concern here?

[JohnF]

What is at issue is the fact that the Magistrate took the niece's word that a message left on a cell phone is private and meant for the owner of the cell phone. My sister is nearly blind, and other's retrieve her messages for her, using trhe speaker phone. So, a number of people heard the messages.

The Magistrate dismissed the case. The niece is free to make abusive calls, and my sister has no defense.

Is there a reason why you thought the niece may have called her own phone?

[Bricks41]

The law in your State will be the final word, but abusive or harassing phone calls made to an individual can fall under telecommunication harrasment. It would be possible to seek something similar to a Restraining Order, at least in Ohio.