Illegal Credit Card Practice?

[lostinparadise]

I just posted this under another thread before seeing that this is the correct forum for it. I apologize.

Please help if you know the laws on this. This is regarding the practice of lowering credit limits to just under the balance on the day the finance charges are charged, without giving any notice, causing the account to be over-limit.

I contacted my CC's customer service department in July of 2007 regarding over-limit fees on my account. I had a $7,000 limit, as far as I knew, and was not expecting this fee. The agent told me that my limit had been lowered to $6,800 (my balance was $6,790.75.) on July 2. This was fine, except for the fact that, on that same day, they also charged the finance charges ($170.25), knowing this would put me over my new limit. I didn't receive the statement advising me they were lowering my limit "effective immediately" until July 5, three days later. By lowering my limit to just under what I owe on the same day they were to charge the finance fee, it caused me to incur the over-limit fee of $39.00. I contested that I was not responsible for a fee I had no way to protect myself against, considering the statement was sent out on the same day they conducted this matter. After speaking with a "supervisor", I was able to get the charge removed, but I have reservations about this business practice, and wonder if it borders on criminal offense. It happened to me again on February 1, 2008. They lowered my limit from $6,800 to $6,500, "effective immediately" when my balance was at $6,452. Had I made any charges between February 1 (when they sent the statement advising this) and February 4 (when I actually received the letter informing me of this), I would have incurred over-limit fees. I could not have known I would have been going over a new limit. I spoke with a customer service agent who told me they were supposed to give me at least a month notice that they are lowering my limit, yet she couldn't explain why I kept getting "effective immediately" statements. This also happened back on October 3, 2006, when my balance was lowered from $10,000 to $7,100. I will be looking at statements received over the last 10 years to see how many times this has occurred, as I don't recall it being mentioned in the agreement I signed with them and I can't believe it could be legal to not give customers notice of lowered limits. By the way, no charges have been made to this account in nearly a year, yet somehow I have ended up with at least 4 over-limit fees in that time. How can this be legal? They keep lowering my limit to validate over-limit fees when they charge the finance charges.

How can I find out the law on this, short of contacting a lawyer?

Also, is the credit card company required to send me a copy of the signed agreement I have with them upon my request, or do they actually have to be subpoenaed? A supervisor said the only way I could acquire this was with a subpoena to the legal department.

see your other post

Originally Posted by lostinparadise I just posted this under another thread before seeing that this is the correct forum for it. I apologize. Please help if you know the laws on this. This is regarding the practice of lowering credit limits to just under the balance on the day the finance charges are charged, without giving any notice, causing the account to be over-limit. I contacted my CC's customer service department in July of 2007 regarding over-limit fees on my account. I had a $7,000 limit, as far as I knew, and was not expecting this fee. The agent told me that my limit had been lowered to $6,800 (my balance was $6,790.75.) on July 2. This was fine, except for the fact that, on that same day, they also charged the finance charges ($170.25), knowing this would put me over my new limit. I didn't receive the statement advising me they were lowering my limit "effective immediately" until July 5, three days later. By lowering my limit to just under what I owe on the same day they were to charge the finance fee, it caused me to incur the over-limit fee of $39.00. I contested that I was not responsible for a fee I had no way to protect myself against, considering the statement was sent out on the same day they conducted this matter. After speaking with a "supervisor", I was able to get the charge removed, but I have reservations about this business practice, and wonder if it borders on criminal offense. It happened to me again on February 1, 2008. They lowered my limit from $6,800 to $6,500, "effective immediately" when my balance was at $6,452. Had I made any charges between February 1 (when they sent the statement advising this) and February 4 (when I actually received the letter informing me of this), I would have incurred over-limit fees. I could not have known I would have been going over a new limit. I spoke with a customer service agent who told me they were supposed to give me at least a month notice that they are lowering my limit, yet she couldn't explain why I kept getting "effective immediately" statements. This also happened back on October 3, 2006, when my balance was lowered from $10,000 to $7,100. I will be looking at statements received over the last 10 years to see how many times this has occurred, as I don't recall it being mentioned in the agreement I signed with them and I can't believe it could be legal to not give customers notice of lowered limits. By the way, no charges have been made to this account in nearly a year, yet somehow I have ended up with at least 4 over-limit fees in that time. How can this be legal? They keep lowering my limit to validate over-limit fees when they charge the finance charges. How can I find out the law on this, short of contacting a lawyer? Also, is the credit card company required to send me a copy of the signed agreement I have with them upon my request, or do they actually have to be subpoenaed? A supervisor said the only way I could acquire this was with a subpoena to the legal department.

You have a right to see your contract with the bank.... But keep in mind a llegal lone has to have both parties signing it. YOU and the BANK!!! The bank will send you a paper you sinded... but were is their signature. ALL CREDIT CARDS ARE ILLEGAL... Think when you signed the paper did they hand over money or a plactice card?( Like a home loan or car loan money is handed over either top you or car dealer or home builder) And if you signed a so called contract ONCE why keep signing every time you use the card? That is illegal acording to the FCA and the constition of the USA. IT takes time but you can fight it to have all personal loans and credit cards removed from your credit history... even bankrusies.

...hmmm not sure about that.

The contracts are binding.

[Edward]

Originally Posted by Unregistered You have a right to see your contract with the bank.... But keep in mind a llegal lone has to have both parties signing it. YOU and the BANK!!! The bank will send you a paper you sinded... but were is their signature. ALL CREDIT CARDS ARE ILLEGAL... Think when you signed the paper did they hand over money or a plactice card?( Like a home loan or car loan money is handed over either top you or car dealer or home builder) And if you signed a so called contract ONCE why keep signing every time you use the card? That is illegal acording to the FCA and the constition of the USA. IT takes time but you can fight it to have all personal loans and credit cards removed from your credit history... even bankrusies.

I think so that you are right and all have to understand it. We have to make only a legal loans, as it will be safe to us. But it don't understand one thing as you had said that credit cards are illegal, Who it could be possible.


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