Lawyer ethics

When a couple goes through divorce and a judge makes a ruling that the husband can have the right to list and sell a home, but both parties have agree on things. The husband's attorney writes up the order and added that the husband also gets to sign the wife's name on all documents. The judge did not say that. Is this legal? Both couple are on the title to the house. Is the house legally sold without the wife signing any of the documents?

That is odd, and you could inform the judge. The wife needs to approve and agree.

If the judge doesn't care then what? The judge did not take her signing rights away, the lawyer did. Now the home was sold without her signing any of the papers. How could this be a legal sale? Is the home actually sold?

You should ask for a specific ruling on the issue, You can appeal the judges decision if need be.